Describe on a key difference between Aristotle and Plato?
The main difference between Plato and Aristotle is that Plato agreed that the sensible world is a perpetual change and the fact that a general stable object can be scientifically defined while Aristotle did no agree with these. Plato argued that a supra-sensible world exists as a parallel to the perceptible world which is disputed by Aristotle.
Describe 2 of the "4" whys or because, what makes them different from one another?
According to Aristotle, there are four causes that answer the questions ‘why.’ The first why explains the change of movement and is also known as the material cause. It covers the change aspect of changing or moving materials.
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How does Aristotle idea of the' soul' differ from the common understanding of the term? What is it and where is it found (for Aristotle)?
The common understanding of soul is the immaterial component of a human body that is capable of partaking divinity and surviving death. According to Aristotle, soul’s conception is different as he conceives it to be obscure and is not well separated from the body.
Define the term 'eudaemonia'. Do you agree or disagree that this is an admirable goal to achieve? Why or why not.
The term eudaemonia literally refers to happiness obtained through faring well, personal well-being and being in favor of the gods. I believe that this is an admirable goal for anyone as the state of being happy is associated with physical and emotional wellness.
Describe what desecrates means by 'clear and distinct'.
The terms clear and distinct refers to those perceptions that are too self-evident to be doubted and disputed.
What do you think of Descartes rule that we shouldn't completely trust those who have cheated us even once? Does this rule apply to the senses?
I think that when Descartes rule that we shouldn’t completely trust those who have cheated us even once, he means that these cheaters are more likely to cheat once again. This rule does not apply to the senses as they must have cheated us at sometimes, but many are times it reveals the truth.
Descartes considers the possibility that he might be dreaming. What is his point in this discussion? What is he getting at when he says that dreams are like painting? How is this relevant to his point? Is he saying that I might have been dreaming my whole life? What kinds of beliefs about the world does this discussion of dreaming call into doubt? What kinds of beliefs does it not call into doubt? Explain why.
Descartes believes that when dreaming he believes that he is awake while he is not. This makes him fail to believe that he might not be very sure that he is not dreaming at other times since his senses have a tendency of cheating him. This when compared to painting he claims that when all painting has been copied there is no strong proof of where the paintings were copied from. By this, he says that he may have been dreaming of his whole life. This belief doubts the fact that one is not drunk while being drunk gives one extra confidence to believe that he is not drunk.
Why would Descartes prefer the statement ' i think therefore I am' to the statement ' i shop therefore I am'? Explain his and your reasoning.
Descartes prefer the statement ‘I think therefore I am’ to prove his existence s opposed to ‘I shop therefore I am’ which defines a person not by what they think they are but what they own.
